Lds Did Jesus Really Live Again
It is sometimes argued that Christ descended into hell later he died.
The widely used Apostles' Creed reads, "was crucified, dead, and buried, he descended into hell; the third day he rose over again from the dead."
Only the phrase "he descended into hell" does not occur in the Bible.
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Did Jesus actually descend into hell?
Wayne Grudem on the origins of the phrase
and what the Bible says about it.
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Where did the phrase come up from?
A murky background lies behind much of the history of the phrase itself. Its origins, where they can be found, are far from praiseworthy.
Information technology is surprising to find that the phrase "he descended into hell" was non institute in any of the early versions of the Creed (in the versions used in Rome, in the remainder of Italy, and in Africa) until information technology appeared in one of two versions from Rufinus in A.D. 390.
Then it was not included once more in any version of the Creed until A.D. 650.
Moreover, Rufinus, the only person who included it before A.D. 650, did non retrieve that information technology meant that Christ descended into hell, but understood the phrase simply to mean that Christ was "buried." In other words, he took information technology to hateful that Christ "descended into the grave." (The Greek form has hadēs, which tin can mean just "grave," non geenna, "hell, place of punishment.").
Nosotros should too annotation that the phrase simply appears in one of the two versions of the Creed that nosotros accept from Rufinus: it was not in the Roman form of the Creed that he preserved.
This ways, therefore, that until A.D. 650 no version of the Creed included this phrase with the intention of saying that Christ "descended into hell"—and the only version to include the phrase before A.D. 650 gives it a different meaning.
Subsequently when the phrase was incorporated into unlike versions of the Creed that already had the phrase "and buried," some other explanation had to be given to it.
There have been three possible meanings proposed throughout church history:
- Some take this phrase to hateful that Christ suffered the pains of hell while on the cantankerous. Calvin takes this approach, as does the Heidelberg Catechism.
- Others have understood it to mean that Christ continued in the "land of decease" until his resurrection. The Westminster Larger Canon, Question 50 takes this approach: "Christ's humiliation after his death consisted in his being cached, and continuing in the land of the expressionless, and under the power of expiry till the third mean solar day; which hath been otherwise expressed in these words, He descended into hell."
- Finally, some take argued that the phrase means just what information technology appears to mean on showtime reading: that Christ really did descend into hell later his death on the cantankerous.
Learn more nigh the life of Jesus:
Four Portraits, One Jesus
What does the Bible say? 5 passages used to support the descent into hell
There are five Bible passages used to support the idea that Christ really did descend into hell between his death and resurrection.
1. Acts 2:27
This is part of Peter's sermon on the Day of Pentecost, where he quotes Psalm sixteen:10: "because y'all will not abandon me to the realm of the dead [KJV: "leave my soul in hell"], nor will you allow your faithful one run across decay."
Does this mean Jesus entered hell? Non necessarily. Peter is using David's psalm to bear witness that Christ's trunk did not decay—he is therefore unlike David, who "died and was buried, and his tomb is here to this day"
ii. Romans 10:six–7
These verses incorporate 2 rhetorical questions, again Quondam Attestation quotations (from Deut. 30:xiii): "Do not say in your eye, 'Who will arise into heaven?' (that is, to bring Christ down) or 'Who volition descend into the abyss?' (that is, to bring Christ upwardly from the dead)."
But this passage inappreciably teaches that Christ descended into hell. The point of the passage is that Paul is telling people not to ask these questions, because Christ is non far away—he is nigh—and faith in him is as near every bit confessing with our mouth and believing in our heart (v. 9).
three. Ephesians iv:viii–9
Here Paul writes, "In saying, 'He ascended,' what does it mean but that he had too descended into the lower parts of the earth?"
Does this hateful that Christ "descended" to hell?
It is at get-go unclear what is meant by "the lower parts of the earth," simply another translation seems to requite the best sense: "What does 'he ascended' mean except that he also descended to the lower, earthly regions?" (NIV). Hither the NIV takes "descended" to refer to Christ's coming to globe equally a baby (the Incarnation). The terminal four words are an acceptable understanding of the Greek text, taking the phrase "the lower regions of the earth" to mean "lower regions which are the world."
Paul is saying that the Christ who went up to heaven (in his ascension) is the same one who earlier came down from sky (5. 10). That "descent" from sky occurred, of grade, when Christ came to be built-in as a human. So the verse speaks of the incarnation, not of a descent into hell.
4. ane Peter three:18–xx
This passage says: "For Christ as well suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made live in the Spirit. After being made alive, he went and made declaration to the imprisoned spirits—to those who were ill-behaved long agone when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built."
For many people this is the most puzzling passage on this entire subject. Let's unpack several questions surrounding this text:
Does one Peter 3:xviii–20 refer to Christ preaching in hell?
Some take taken "he went and preached to the spirits in prison house" to mean that Christ went into hell and preached to the spirits who were there—either proclaiming the gospel and offering a second take a chance to repent, or just proclaiming that he had triumphed over them and that they were eternally condemned.
But these interpretations neglect to explain adequately either the passage itself or its setting in this context. Peter does not say that Christ preached to spirits by and large, but merely to those "who formerly did not obey...during the building of the ark." Such a limited audience—those who disobeyed during the building of the ark—would be a strange group for Christ to travel to hell and preach to.
If Christ proclaimed his triumph, why but to these sinners and not to all? And if he offered a second chance for salvation, why but to these sinners and not to all? Fifty-fifty more difficult for this view is the fact that Scripture elsewhere indicates that there is no opportunity for repentance subsequently death (Luke xvi:26; Heb. 10:26–27).
Moreover, the context of ane Peter 3 makes "preaching in hell" unlikely. Peter is encouraging his readers to witness boldly to hostile unbelievers around them. He just told them to "ever be prepared to give an answer to everyone who asks you" (i Peter three:15 NIV). This evangelistic motif would lose its urgency if Peter were pedagogy a second adventure for salvation later on death. And it would non fit at all with a "preaching" of condemnation.
Does one Peter 3:eighteen–20 refer to Christ preaching to fallen angels?
To give a better explanation for these difficulties, several commentators have proposed taking "spirits in prison" to mean demonic spirits, the spirits of fallen angels, and have said that Christ proclaimed condemnation to these demons. This (it is claimed) would comfort Peter's readers by showing them that the demonic forces oppressing them would also be defeated past Christ.
However, Peter'southward readers would have to go through an incredibly complicated reasoning process to draw this conclusion when Peter does not explicitly teach information technology. They would take to reason from (i) some demons who sinned long ago were condemned, to (two) other demons are now inciting your human persecutors, to (3) those demons volition also be condemned anytime, to (4) therefore your persecutors will finally be judged as well. Finally Peter'due south readers would get to Peter's bespeak: (five) Therefore don't fear your persecutors.
Does it non seem as well farfetched to say that Peter knew his readers would read all this into the text?
Moreover, Peter emphasizes hostile persons, not demons, in the context (1 Peter iii:14, sixteen). And where would Peter's readers get the idea that angels sinned "during the building of the ark"? There is zippo of that in the Genesis story about the building of the ark. And (in spite of what some have claimed), if we look at all the traditions of Jewish interpretation of the flood story, we discover no mention of angels sinning specifically "during the building of the ark." Therefore the view that Peter is speaking of Christ'southward proclamation of judgment to fallen angels is really not persuasive either.
Does 1 Peter 3:18–20 refer to Christ'due south proclaiming release to Old Testament saints?
Another explanation is that Christ, after his decease, went and proclaimed release to Old Testament believers who had been unable to enter heaven until the completion of Christ's redemptive work.
But again we may question whether this view adequately accounts for what the text actually says. It does not say that Christ preached to those who were believers or faithful to God, simply to those "who formerly did non obey"—the emphasis is on their defiance. Moreover, Peter does not specify One-time Testament believers generally, but only those who were disobedient "in the days of Noah, during the building of the ark" (1 Peter 3:twenty).
Finally, Scripture gives us no articulate evidence to brand us think that full access to the blessings of being in God's presence in heaven were withheld from Old Testament believers when they died—indeed, several passages suggest that believers who died before Christ's death did enter into the presence of God at once because their sins were forgiven past trusting in the Messiah who was to come up (Gen. 5:24; ii Sam. 12:23; Pss. 16:11; 17:fifteen; 23:6; Eccl. 12:7; Matt. 22:31–32; Luke xvi:22; Rom. iv:1–8; Heb. 11:5).
A more satisfying caption of 1 Peter iii:xviii–twenty
The most satisfactory explanation of 1 Peter 3:18–twenty seems rather to exist one proposed (simply not really defended) long ago past Augustine: the passage refers not to something Christ did between his expiry and resurrection, but to what he did "in the spiritual realm of beingness" (or "through the Spirit") at the time of Noah. When Noah was building the ark, Christ "in spirit" was preaching through Noah to the hostile unbelievers around him.
This estimation is very appropriate to the larger context of 1 Peter three:thirteen–22. The parallel betwixt the situation of Noah and the situation of Peter'due south readers is clear at several points:
- Both were a religious minority
- Both were surrounded by hostile unbelievers
- Both were facing the possibility of imminent judgment
- Both were to witness
- Both were finally saved
Such an agreement of 1 Peter 3:18–20 seems to be past far the most likely solution to a puzzling passage.
v. 1 Peter 4:half-dozen
This fifth and final passage that supports Jesus' descent into hell says, "For this is why the gospel was preached even to the dead, that though judged in the flesh like men, they might live in the spirit similar God."
Does this poetry mean that Christ went to hell and preached the gospel to those who had died? If so, it would be the only passage in the Bible that taught a "second chance" for conservancy after death and would contradict passages such as Luke 16:19–31 and Hebrews 9:27, which conspicuously seem to deny this possibility.
Moreover, the passage does non explicitly say that Christ preached to people afterward they had died, and could rather mean that the gospel in full general was preached (this poesy does non even say that Christ preached) to people who are now dead, just that it was preached to them while they were still alive on earth.
This is a common explanation, and it seems to fit this verse much better. It finds support in the second word of the verse, "this," which refers back to the concluding judgment mentioned at the end of verse v. Peter is proverb that it was because of the final judgment that the gospel was preached to the expressionless.
Thus, "the dead" are people who take died and are now expressionless, even though they were alive and on earth when the gospel was preached to them.
Nosotros conclude, therefore, that this concluding passage, when viewed in its context, turns out to provide no convincing support for the doctrine of a descent of Christ into hell.
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iii passages that indicate Jesus did not descend to hell
In addition to the fact that at that place is little if whatsoever biblical support for a descent of Christ into hell, there are some New Testament texts that argue confronting the possibility of Christ's going to hell later on his death.
i. Luke 23:43
Jesus' words to the thief on the cantankerous, "Today you volition exist with me in Paradise" (Luke 23:43), imply that after Jesus died his soul (or spirit) went immediately to the presence of the Father in sky, even though his body remained on world and was buried.
Some people deny this by arguing that "Paradise" is a identify singled-out from heaven, but in both of the other New Testament uses the word clearly ways "heaven": in 2 Corinthians 12:4 it is the place to which Paul was caught upward in his revelation of sky, and in Revelation 2:seven it is the place where we find the tree of life–which is clearly sky in Revelation 22:2 and fourteen.
2. John 19:xxx
In improver, the cry of Jesus, "Information technology is finished" (John 19:30) strongly suggests that Christ's suffering was finished at that moment and so was his alienation from the Male parent because of begetting our sin. This implies that he would not descend into hell, but would go at once into the Father's presence.
3. Luke 23:46
Finally, the cry, "Father, into your easily I commit my spirit" (Luke 23:46), as well suggests that Christ expected (correctly) the firsthand end of his suffering and estrangement and the welcoming of his spirit into heaven by God the Begetter (notation Stephen'south similar cry in Acts 7:59).
If Jesus didn't descend into hell, then what happened when he died?
These texts point, so, that Christ in his death experienced the same things believers in this present age experience when they die: his dead body remained on earth and was buried (as ours will be), just his spirit (or soul) passed immediately into the presence of God in heaven (just as ours will).
Then on the first Easter morn, Christ'south spirit was reunited with his trunk and he was raised from the dead—just as Christians who have died volition (when Christ returns) be reunited to their bodies and raised in their perfect resurrection bodies to new life.
This fact has pastoral encouragement for us: we demand not fear decease, not only because eternal life lies on the other side, but also because we know that our Savior himself has gone through exactly the same experience nosotros volition go through—he has prepared, even sanctified the way, and we follow him with conviction each footstep of that mode.
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Source: https://zondervanacademic.com/blog/did-jesus-really-descend-into-hell
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